Establishing evidence for the greater negative violence of men:
Our society predispositions us to associate women with virtue; in actuality, are females less violent and transgressive or does it just seem that way? To get a perspective independent of gender bias, the empirical data must be considered. In Darrell Steffensmeier and Emile Alan’s statistical review of gender and crime, they find that in addition to participating in fewer serious offenses, females “commit less harm.” They also assert that when women do commit acts of physical violence, they result in “fewer injuries and less serious injuries.” (para 6) The authors are explaining that in comparison to males, females do not commit as many or as violent of crimes.
Following paragraph topic sentence: Surely, there must be a reason for this.
I’m relying on this quote and specifically this source to give me legitimacy in my factual claim. I wonder if I should find another quote with numbers, rates, etc.
I have yet to develop the following paragraph. I’m finding it hard to tie in possible explanations for female reluctance to commit crime with the episode of my choice. I need to figure out a way to assert that Penny’s gender made her fundamentally virtuous; however most analyses of the statistical gap are not psychologically-based, but strive to explain how the data itself is biased (bias in reporting, collecting, etc). For this segment I need to continue to search for more abstract articles.
I know your paper has already been written, so I wanted to ask... Did you figure out a way to tie in Penny's gender with her virtuous nature?
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